1 Corinthians 16:22
If anyone does not love the Lord, a curse be on him.
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That would be counter-cultural.The REB reads identical to the NEB: <i>If anyone does not love the Lord, let him be outcast.</i>All the other versions I looked at had curse/accursed/condemned.
That’s a very lovely formatting toolbar. I somehow managed to miss it.
The REB certainly softens it. I wonder how they came to that word choice.
I never realized that if you try to insert HTML code in this box it won’t work because of it being WYSIWYG.
Jeff
i dont know why… but frequently i misread post titles and then am very confused by the content… i read “cross-cultural verse of the day” and i wondered… what the stink?
but now i get stuff.
well said..
altho it wouldn’t apply that well to cross cultural situations…
I often misread titles too at first glance. Maybe i should do a cross-training (double meaning) verse of the day.
I would think we need to consider Paul’s audience and purpose in saying this and we wouldn’t want to say this to a group of unbelievers but how many preachers would be willing to talk about this verse? It stuck out to me when I read it because I never hear about it.
Jeff
Isn’t it true that Paul is only restating fact. The curse of sin remains on all who do not embrace Jesus Christ. He was just agreeing with fact.
I have never heard a lesson on this, and I am not certain I think it would be appropriate except in a group of believers who were being encouraged to evangelize. Then it would be a prod. Otherwise, the condemnation would be counter-productive.
Iris I would agree with you for the most part.
What do think about Jesus speaking John 3:18-21 to Nicodemus? Not meant to be argumentative–just a thought.
Jeff
The 36th verse of that section was what I had in mind. Jesus in working with Nicodemus was trying to help him “see” truth instead of his preconceived notions of what truth was. Of course, it was entirely appropriate, and could, of course, be used in similar context without offense.
Regarding John 3:36–Serious question here:
I wonder if John was speaking only to “John’s disciples and a Jew” (John 3:25) or if he was also speaking among the “people [who] were coming and being baptized”? (John 3:23)
Jeff
I do not think it matters which group or all the groups. It is part of the message of the forerunner. It is true. That is what Paul was rephrasing in his letter, not as a quote, but as a truth.
Thanks for your thoughts.
I was just trying to compare John’s speaking of this truth among unbelievers and comparing it to contemporary situations.
Jeff
I understand. I just use caution when trying to use the “one size fits all” theory when using texts from then to now. I know some would accuse me of being “seeker sensitive” and I truly do not fit that profile. However, I am very sensitive to the audience and how the Spirit would use the Word to them today. Putting others down doesn’t qualify as “good news.” So even though it is used in the Bible and I would and have used it in carefully chosen audiences, that doesn’t mean one is compromising not to use such in certain very general places and audiences.
Is this what you wanted us to do? Thanks for your replies, by the way.
That was a helpful discussion. I’m not a teacher (as you are) or a preacher so I haven’t thought a lot about how much I would be willing to offend someone with a presentation to a group of people. Realizing the gospel itself is offensive to many.
Jeff